Afternoon All,

Can anyone shed any light on this for me?

I am passing an ADO Recordset to a function (which basically scans through, performs some logic and then returns an Array of Record ID's based on the logic result). I am passing the Recordset to it ByVal, as I not want the cursor to move in the Recordset, I just want the results.

However, it appears that it is actually still being passed ByRef??
.EOF is False before calling the procedure, and True once the procedure has completed. Of course, I know VBA is ByRef by default, and I have put ByVal in the parameters for the function.

Does anyone know of ByVal being overridden for ADO Objects? Could it be because of the Cursor Type/Location etc? The recordset passed is a ROFO (read-only, forward only) Recordset.

Just curious as to why this is occurring, I can work around it, but confused as to why I should!

Many thanks,
Rob

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Rob
http://cantgrokwontgrok.blogspot.com

The connection to the recordset is the same regardless of how it is passed. If you want to return the pointer to a certain record once processing from a subroutine or function is done you'd have to store the current position and return to it once the function is finished. This also applies for any filter(s) set or removed.

Another way you could do this, if you need both instances for whatever reason, is to have the subroutine or function open it's own connection to the table. Don't forget to close any code opened connections before the code finishes processing to help prevent orphaned connections.

Hi allenm,

Thanks for your response to this, I done some digging the other day and found out that all Objects are passed ByRef, irrespective as to wether you specify ByVal or ByRef.

From what I can gather, this does not occur in .NET (could be wrong) but from the small amount of .NET stuff I have done, I dont remember this happening.

At least I now know, that you cannot pass an ADO object (or any object) ByVal in VBA...

Thanks for the reply though, much appreciated.

Regards,
Rob